WW1 is generally considered to be the first instance of total war, where every of-age citizen and all possible resources are mobilized in the war effort. In light of this, do you believe Britain's blockade of Germany, which eventually extended to all goods, thereby violating international law-was justified?

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charker2033 charker2033

06-01-2021
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WW1 is generally considered to be the first instance of total war, where every of-age citizen and all possible resources are mobilized in the war effort. In light of this, do you believe Britain's blockade of Germany, which eventually extended to all goods, thereby violating international law-was justified?

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ashkunhatefi20 ashkunhatefi20 · Answer 1 · 2021-01-06T23:57:23-05:00

ashkunhatefi20 ashkunhatefi20

06-01-2021

Answer:

No

Explanation:

Because of this blockade, it made Germany want to retaliate back to the British by using U-Boats to attack enemy ships. And because of this, the Germans attacked the Lusitania, which was an ocean liner built by the British, and with that died 1,197 people in that ship.

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