Answered

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how do I simplify one 1 42/40

Sagot :

danaewilson92
I think your answer would be 2 1/20

Because if you take 1 42/40 that would a improper fraction .. so 42/40 would equal 1 2/40 which would simplify to 1 1/20 + the 1 so that’s how i got 2 1/20
rosygupt26

Answer:

Turn the fraction into an improper fraction: [tex]\frac{82}{40}[/tex]. Now simplify this. Your completely simplified improper fraction would be: [tex]\frac{41}{20}[/tex]. This as a mixed number would be: 2 [tex]\frac{1}{20}[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

This is as simplified as it can get. My explanation is above. Hope it helps!!!

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