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Neil is rolling a fair die and the last ten rolls have been 2,5, 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 2, 6, and 1. He says that the probability of getting a four
on his next roll is higher since he has not gotten one yet. Is he correct?
A)
No, the probability of getting a 4 on a fair die does not change. It will
always be 1/6 no matter what he got on previous rolls.
B)
Yes, since he has gotten everything but a 4 on the last ten rolls, the
probability of getting a 4 is higher on the next roll
No, since he has not gotten a 4 yet he is guaranteed to get one on the next
roll as it is time for him to get one.

C) No, since he has not gotten a 4 yet he is guranteed to get on the next roll as it is time for him to get one.

D)
There is no way to tell until he rolls the die. You cannot accurately predict
what he will get

Sagot :

0533765

Answer:

A)No, the probability of getting a 3 on a fair die does not change. It will always be 1/6  no matter what she got on the previous roll.

Step-by-step explanation:

f on 7 rolls, the outcomes were 7 each time, this doesn't mean that the chances of rolling a specific number on a fair die is changed. On the next roll, 3 will have the same probability as before that is 1/6

So,

The correct answer is:

A) No, the probability of getting a 3 on a fair die does not change. It will always be 1/6  no matter what she got on the previous roll.

fichoh

The probability of getting a certain value on a roll of a fair die is the same. Hence, the probability of getting a 4 on a fair die does not change. It will always be 1/6 no matter what he got on previous rolls.

1 Roll of a fair die :

  • Sample space = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Probability = required outcome / sample space

Probability of getting any value is 1/6 since all the numbers appear just once.

  • P(getting 4) = 1 / 6

Therefore, the probability of getting a number does not depend on the previous outcomes. Hence, it is always the same.

Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/14991482

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