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Sagot :
Answer:
Explanation:
Given that:
diameter = 100 mm
initial temperature = 500 ° C
Conventional coefficient = 500 W/m^2 K
length = 1 m
We obtain the following data from the tables A-1;
For the stainless steel of the rod [tex]\overline T = 548 \ K[/tex]
[tex]\rho = 7900 \ kg/m^3[/tex]
[tex]K = 19.0 \ W/mk \\ \\ C_p = 545 \ J/kg.K[/tex]
[tex]\alpha = 4.40 \times 10^{-6} \ m^2/s \\ \\ B_i = \dfrac{h(\rho/4)}{K} \\ \\ =0.657[/tex]
Here, we can't apply the lumped capacitance method, since Bi > 0.1
[tex]\theta_o = \dfrac{T_o-T_{\infty}}{T_i -T_\infty}} \\ \\ \theta_o = \dfrac{50-30}{500 -30}} \\ \\ \theta_o = 0.0426\\[/tex]
[tex]0.0426 = c_1 \ exp (- E^2_1 F_o_)\\ \\ \\ 0.0426 = 1.1382 \ exp (-10.9287)^2 \ f_o \\ \\ = f_o = \dfrac{In(0.0374)}{0.863} \\ \\ f_o = 3.81[/tex]
[tex]t_f = \dfrac{f_o r^2}{\alpha} \\ \\ t_f = \dfrac{3.81 \times (0.05)^2}{4.40 \times 10^{-6}} \\ \\ t_f= 2162.5 \\ \\ t_f = 36 mins[/tex]
However, on a single rod, the energy extracted is:
[tex]\theta = pcv (T_i - T_{\infty} )(1 - \dfrac{2 \theta}{c} J_1 (\zeta) ) \\ \\ = 7900 \\times 546 \times 0.007854 \times (500 -300) (1 - \dfrac{2 \times 0.0426}{1.3643}) \\ \\ \theta = 1.54 \times 10^7 \ J[/tex]
Hence, for centerline temperature at 50 °C;
The surface temperature is:
[tex]T(r_o,t) = T_{\infty} +(T_1 -T_{\infty}) \theta_o \ J_o(\zeta_1) \\ \\ = 30 + (500-30) \times 0.0426 \times 0.5386 \\ \\ \mathbf{T(r_o,t) = 41.69 ^0 \ C}[/tex]
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