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Sagot :
Answer:
no it's equal to 3/2 because 2 negatives equal a positive number
hope this helps
have a good day :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
No, it's not equivalent
Step-by-step explanation:
[tex]-(\frac{3}{2} ) = 1\frac{1}{2\\}[/tex]
[tex]-\frac{3}{2} = -1\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
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