Answered

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Brothers Tim and Jim Shanton have asked you, their financial advisor, to settle a friendly quarrel between them. Tim argues that a Roth IRA and a traditional IRA are actuarially equivalent if $4,000 is available for investing on a before-tax basis, contributions to the traditional IRA are deductible, tax rates are expected to stay the same, and both have the same interest rates. So, it makes no difference which vehicle one uses to save for retirement. Jim insists that a Roth IRA is the better investment. You tell them
a. Tim is wrong; the tax deduction available for a traditional IRA allows more money to work for the contributor
b. Jim is wrong; at least for some low income individuals, the traditional IRA is a better investment because of their relatively lower tax rates
c. Tim is right; the two investments are equivalent in every respect when considered at the end of an investment horizon at least 10 years long
d. Jim is right; the ability to make tax-free withdrawals from Roth IRA gives a greater return even when contributions and interest rates are equivalent over time
e. both are right; the two investments are actuarially equivalent, but absence of a minimum distribution date and more liberal penalty-free withdrawal options may make the Roth IRA more attractive

Sagot :

Answer: E. both are right; the two investments are actuarially equivalent, but absence of a minimum distribution date and more liberal penalty-free withdrawal options may make the Roth IRA more attractive.

Explanation:

First and foremost, actuarially equivalent simply means a benefit that is of equivalent value, but which has a different payment form to a specified benefit.

From the information that's given in the question, we can deduce that both of them are right as the two investments are actuarially equivalent, but there's an absence of a minimum distribution date and more liberal penalty-free withdrawal options may make the Roth IRA more attractive.

Therefore, the correct option is E.

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