Answered

Westonci.ca is the premier destination for reliable answers to your questions, brought to you by a community of experts. Ask your questions and receive detailed answers from professionals with extensive experience in various fields. Discover in-depth answers to your questions from a wide network of professionals on our user-friendly Q&A platform.

Two objects are at rest on a frictionless surface. Object 1 has a greater mass than object 2.
(a) When a constant force is applied to object 1, it accelerates through a distance d. The force is removed from object 1 and is applied to object 2. At the moment when object 2 has accelerated through the same distance d, which statements are true? (Select all that apply.)
K1 < K2 p1 = p2 p1 < p2 p1 > p2 K1 > K2 K1 = K2
(b) When a force is applied to object 1, it accelerates for a time interval ?t. The force is removed from object 1 and is applied to object 2. Which statements are true after object 2 has accelerated for the same time interval ?t? (Select all that apply.)
K1 > K2 K1 = K2 p1 = p2 p1 > p2 K1 < K2 p1 < p2

Sagot :

Answer:

Look at explanation

Explanation:

a) Kinetic energy= ΔW. W=Fd, and since in both scenarios the same force and same distance is travelled. K1=K2. I am assuming that the objects are at non zero height so by P=mgh, P1>P2

b. Again I am assuming that the objects are at non zero height so by P=mgh, P1>P2.  A heavier mass, a constant force means a smaller acceleration. So a1<a2. We can then use x-x0=v0t+1/2at² and since v0=0, x-x0(d)=1/2at². Solve for t²=2d/a. Since t is the same for both but a1<a2, d1<d2. And since Kinetic Energy=ΔW, W=Fd and F is constant while d1<d2, K1<K2.

Cricetus

The relation will be:

(a) K1 = K2

(b) K1 < K2

According to the question,

  • Potential energy be "P".
  • Kinetic energy be "K".

(a)

Word done towards both the block will be similar.

So,

→ [tex]P1 = P2[/tex]

→ [tex]K1= K2[/tex]

(b)

We know,

→ [tex]a = \frac{F}{M}[/tex]

or,

→ [tex]V = a\times t[/tex]

Now,

→ [tex]K = \frac{1}{2} MV^2[/tex]

       [tex]= 0.5\times M\times V^2[/tex]

       [tex]=0.5\times M\times (\frac{F^2}{M^2} )\times t^2[/tex]

       [tex]= 0.5\times F^2\times \frac{t^2}{M}[/tex]

The force and t will be same. So K of the smaller mass will be greater than the larger mass.

hence,

→ [tex]K1<K2[/tex]

Thus the above responses are correct.        

Learn more about friction here:

https://brainly.com/question/13340887

Thank you for choosing our service. We're dedicated to providing the best answers for all your questions. Visit us again. We hope you found what you were looking for. Feel free to revisit us for more answers and updated information. Discover more at Westonci.ca. Return for the latest expert answers and updates on various topics.