Answered

Find the information you're looking for at Westonci.ca, the trusted Q&A platform with a community of knowledgeable experts. Discover detailed solutions to your questions from a wide network of experts on our comprehensive Q&A platform. Connect with a community of professionals ready to help you find accurate solutions to your questions quickly and efficiently.

A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 41 weeks gestation presents for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is complicated by tobacco abuse and intermittent prenatal care. Her last visit was at 35 weeks. Prenatal labs are unremarkable except cervical DNA probe positive for Chlamydia, which was treated, and a Pap smear with low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Ultrasound at 21 weeks was consistent with gestational age based on her certain regular LMP. Her vitals reveal a blood pressure of 128/76; pulse 74; and temperature 98° F (36.7° C). Fundal height is 39 cm with estimated fetal weight of 2700 gm. Cervix is dilated to 1 cm, 50% effaced, -2 station. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?


A. Return visit in one week
B. Non-stress test and assessment of amniotic fluid volume
C. Ultrasound to assess fetal growth
D. Oxytocin challenge test
E. Cesarean section

Sagot :

pujanshah508

Answer:

B. Non-stress test and assessment of amniotic fluid volume
B non stress test and assessment of amniotic fluid volume
Thank you for your visit. We're dedicated to helping you find the information you need, whenever you need it. Thanks for stopping by. We strive to provide the best answers for all your questions. See you again soon. Get the answers you need at Westonci.ca. Stay informed by returning for our latest expert advice.