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Which of the following is the most likely reason why Adams dates the beginning of the American Revolution to the 1760s?

Sagot :

The reason Adams dates the American Revolution to the 1760s is because of A) Renewed efforts by Great Britain to consolidate imperial control over the colonies.

Before the 1760s, the British practiced a policy of "Salutary Neglect" which meant that they barely controlled the colonies so long as the colonies were loyal.

After the French and Indian war ended in the 1760s, the British became more assertive of their rule over the colonies by passing such Acts as:

  • The Proclamation of 1763 which limited the areas colonists could settle
  • The Stamp Act
  • The Declaratory Act

These annoyed the colonists who felt their freedoms were being stripped away.

We can therefore conclude that Adams felt the Revolution began in the 1760s as the British tried to enforce their rule on the colonies.

Find out more at https://brainly.com/question/2150003.

Options for this question include:

A) Renewed efforts by Great Britain to consolidate imperial control over the colonies

B) The forging of American Indian political alliances with European powers

C) Increased involvement of colonial merchants in the Atlantic economy

D) The expansion of the colonial population into the interior of the continent