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Sagot :
Answer:
- Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
Given:
- f(x) = 4x
- g(x) = x/4
Find the following:
- f(g(x)) = 4*g(x) = 4*x/4 = x
- g(f(x)) = f(x)/4 = 4x/4 = x
Since f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x, the functions are inverses of each other.
- f(x)=4x
- g(x)=x/4
[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto f(g(x))=4(x/4)=x[/tex]
[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto g(f(x))=4x/4=x[/tex]
- f(x) and g(x) are inverse of each other
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