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I need help in this question please

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Sagot :

Answer:

f(x) and g(x) have the same y-intercept

Step-by-step explanation:

the y-intercept is the point, where the graph intersects the y-axis.

and what is the definition of the y-axis ? it is

x = 0

for all the values up and down the y-axis, their x-coordinate is 0.

so, to find the y-intercept we find the functional value for x = 0.

and that is here in both cases : -32

and the y-intersect point is therefore for both functions:

(0, -32)