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The distribution of tips given by customers who buy one cup of coffee is bimodal with a mean of $0.29 and a standard deviation of $0.1164. If a random sample of 50 tips from customers who buy one cup of coffee is selected, is it appropriate to calculate the probability of a sample mean being more than $0.32 using an approximately normal modal?

Sagot :

Answer:

0.6781

Correct me if Im wrong
0.6781 is the answer to your question
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