The distribution of tips given by customers who buy one cup of coffee is bimodal with a mean of $0.29 and a standard deviation of $0.1164. If a random sample of 50 tips from customers who buy one cup of coffee is selected, is it appropriate to calculate the probability of a sample mean being more than $0.32 using an approximately normal modal?

Question

07-02-2022
Mathematics

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The distribution of tips given by customers who buy one cup of coffee is bimodal with a mean of $0.29 and a standard deviation of $0.1164. If a random sample of 50 tips from customers who buy one cup of coffee is selected, is it appropriate to calculate the probability of a sample mean being more than $0.32 using an approximately normal modal?

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