Answered

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Can an absolute value function have an inverse function? If so, give an
example. If not, explain why it is impossible.

Sagot :

vivi200

Answer:

Let f be a function. If any horizontal line intersects the graph of f more than once, then f does not have an inverse. An absolute value function (without domain restriction) has an inverse that is NOT a function. That's why an absolute value function does not have an inverse function。

View image vivi200
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