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Select the correct answer.
Jonas wrote the following sentence in an analysis comparing Act 5, Scene 3 of The Winter's Tale with "Pygmalion and Galatea."
In my opinion, Hermione shouldn't have been so ready to forgive her husband, but in Galatea's case, there was no problem
with the past.
Which revision correctly uses formal style?
OA. I'm sure most readers agree that Hermione lets Leontes off the hook for his past deeds way too easily. Galatea is
another story, though, since she has no past.
OB. I still think that Hermione forgives her husband too easily, but in any case, this detail differs from Ovid's story
because Galatea has no past at all.
OC. Some would argue that Hermione forgives her husband's past cruel actions too easily, but this detail differs from
Ovid's story because Galatea has no past at all.
OD. As a former statue, Galatea has no past at all, but it's even worse for Hermione, who really forgives her husband's
past actions too easily.

Sagot :

mcarc09

The revision that correctly uses formal style is "Some would argue that Hermione forgives her husband's past cruel actions too easily, but this detail..."

Characteristics of formal style

A text written in a formal style will present the following characteristics:

  • Formal vocabulary, that is, words that are not commonly used in daily conversations.
  • Sentences with inverted structures or in the passive voice.
  • An impersonal tone, that is, a lack of opinion or feelings toward the topic.

That is why option C is the best answer for this question. All other options use words that evoke feelings and express opinions. Option C, on the other hand, maintains a more formal style and impersonal tone.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

"Some would argue that Hermione forgives her husband's past cruel actions too easily, but this detail differs from Ovid's story because Galatea has no past at all."

Learn more about formal style here:

https://brainly.com/question/2025619

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