Discover a world of knowledge at Westonci.ca, where experts and enthusiasts come together to answer your questions. Experience the ease of finding reliable answers to your questions from a vast community of knowledgeable experts. Get immediate and reliable solutions to your questions from a community of experienced professionals on our platform.
Sagot :
With convolution theorem the equation is proved.
According to the statement
we have given that the equation and we have to evaluate with the convolution theorem.
Then for this purpose, we know that the
A convolution integral is an integral that expresses the amount of overlap of one function as it is shifted over another function.
And the given equation is solved with this given integral.
So, According to this theorem the equation becomes the
[tex]\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{ \mathscr{L} (e^{-\tau} \cos \tau ) }{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1}}{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{1}{s}\left (\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1} \right).[/tex]
Then after solving, it become and with theorem it says that the
[tex]\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} f(\tau) d\tau \right) = \frac{\mathscr{L} ( f(\tau))}{s} .[/tex]
Hence by this way the given equation with convolution theorem is proved.
So, With convolution theorem the equation is proved.
Learn more about convolution theorem here
https://brainly.com/question/15409558
#SPJ4
We hope you found what you were looking for. Feel free to revisit us for more answers and updated information. Thanks for using our platform. We aim to provide accurate and up-to-date answers to all your queries. Come back soon. Keep exploring Westonci.ca for more insightful answers to your questions. We're here to help.
