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Why did it take more generations of complete selection to reduce q from 0. 1 to 0. 01 (a 0. 09 change) compared that for a 0. 5 to 0. 1 reduction (a larger, 0. 4 change)? explain

Sagot :

Zygotic selection against dominant alleles is more efficient than selection against recessive alleles. It can take fewer than 100 generations to eliminate a dominate delterious allele with an initial frequency of 0.70.

According to hardy- Weinberg equilibrium scientist have observe at-least two generation.  Allele frequencies are the same for both generations then the population is in the Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium. The frequency of heterogeneous individuals are equal to 2pq.

In case of 2pq equals 0.32 which means that the frequency of individuals heterozygous for this gene is equal to the 32%. Hardy- Weinberg equation is , p=the frequency of dominant allele in a population.q= frequency of recessive allele in a population.

To learn more about hardy- Weinberg equilibrium here

https://brainly.com/question/16823644

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