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subtract 4 from 1/6 of 42

Sagot :

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[tex]\frac{1}{6} \times 42 - 4= \frac{42}{6}-4 = 7-4=3[/tex]
soneyedesola44

Subtract 4 from [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] of 42, the answer is 3.

Subtract 4 from [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]  of 42 can also be expressed as: ( [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] x 42 ) - 4

Further Explanation

Therefore, you have:

= ( [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] x 42 ) – 4 (since 42 and 6 can divide each other, then we can evaluate the expression)

Therefore, you have:

= (1 x 7) – 4

= (7) – 4

= 7 – 4

= 3

Therefore, if you subtract 4 from [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] of 42, the answer is 3.

Notably, the question was solved using the rule of BODMAS.

It represents Bracket, order, division, multiplication, addition, subtraction.

Significantly we derived the solution by using multiplication, division, and subtraction. Also, it is important to know that 1 sixth can be expressed as [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] and 1 sixth of 42 is the same as [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] x 42.

LEARN MORE:

  • Subtract 4 from 1/6 of 42  https://brainly.com/question/282405
  • Subtract 4 from 1/6 of 42  https://brainly.com/question/1048099

KEYWORDS:

  • bodmas
  • 1/6 of 42
  • evaluate
  • multiply
  • subtraction
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