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Sagot :
When getting their hair trimmed by the same barber, women are frequently charged more than males. Given that haircuts, demand may be more inelastic for women than for males and because haircuts are impossible to arbitrage, this is not regarded as pricing discrimination.
What transpires when demand is inelastic?
When a buyer's desire for a product does not fluctuate as much as a product's price changes, this is known as inelastic demand. Demand is said to be inelastic when the price rises by 20% yet the decline in demand is only 1%. This problem frequently arises with common household goods and services.
Arbitrage is defined as.
An investor may utilize the investment method of arbitrage, which is purchasing and selling a product at the same time on other markets, to profit from a price discrepancy. Even while pricing fluctuations are frequently insignificant and fleeting, when a considerable volume is used, the profits can be rather high.
Learn more about inelastic demand: https://brainly.com/question/281925914
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