Read the excerpt below to answer question #7 Source: http://www.stamp-act.net/declaratory_act_original_text.php
Whereas several of the houses of representatives in His Majesty's colonies and plantations in America have of late,
against law, claimed to themselves, or to the general assemblies of the same, the sole and exclusive right of imposing
duties and taxes upon His Majesty's subjects in the said colonies and plantations; and have, in pursuance of such claim,
passed certain votes, resolutions, and orders derogatory to the legislative authority of Parliament, and inconsistent with
the dependency of the said colonies and plantations upon the crown of Great Britain: may it therefore please Your Most
Excellent Majesty that it may be declared, and be it declared by the king's Most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice
and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the
authority of the same, That the said colonies and plantations in America have been, are, and of right ought to be,
subordinate unto, and dependent upon the imperial crown and Parliament of Great Britain; and that the king's Majesty,
by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, of Great Britain, in Parliament
assembled, had, hath, and of right ought to have, full power and authority to make laws and statutes of sufficient force
and validity to bind the colonies and people of America, subjects of the crown of Great Britain, in all cases whatsoever.
According to this excerpt from the 1766 Declaratory Act, the British justification for passing the law was?
