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1. Why were Byzantium and Islam both at pains to distinguish between women's private roles and rights and their public roles? Did religion have anything to do with this distinction?
2. In which society were women's property rights better protected, Islam or Western Christianity? Can you think of factors besides religion that might contribute to the difference? Was the Muslim provision of divorce, compared to Christian family law, a distinct advantage for women (even though their divorce rights were inferior to those of men)?

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