At Westonci.ca, we provide clear, reliable answers to all your questions. Join our vibrant community and get the solutions you need. Connect with a community of experts ready to provide precise solutions to your questions quickly and accurately. Get precise and detailed answers to your questions from a knowledgeable community of experts on our Q&A platform.

Consider the following statement: Let f be a function, such that for all a and b in the domain of f, f(a)=f(b) implies a=b. Then the function f has an inverse. Is this statement true or false?