Consider the following statement: Let f be a function, such that for all a and b in the domain of f, f(a)=f(b) implies a=b. Then the function f has an inverse. Is this statement true or false?

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jessicaanes1986 jessicaanes1986

05-12-2022
Mathematics

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Consider the following statement: Let f be a function, such that for all a and b in the domain of f, f(a)=f(b) implies a=b. Then the function f has an inverse. Is this statement true or false?

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