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What is Rosencrantz and Guildenstern's explanation for Hamlet's madness at the beginning of Act 3?

Sagot :

Hamlet's justification for his insanity given by Rosencrantz and Guildenstern at the start of Act 3 is that he wants the King and Queen to attend a play that evening. They both concur.

What was Hamlet's madness?

Hamlet is probably suffering from a real mental ailment, most likely depression. Hamlet acknowledges having depression. His father's passing merely made a pre-existing issue worse. Hamlet exhibits gloomy views and negativity throughout the play. The fact that Hamlet can choose when to act insane is a blatant sign that his insanity is staged. Hamlet's complex planning, confidences to Horatio, and soliloquies reveal his capacity to know when to act sane.

How did Hamlet act insane?

Hamlet is most likely never "mad" in the way he pretends to be, but he makes use of the appearance of madness to express the very real burdens he is bearing, sometimes in coded, cryptic, circumspect ways, and other times quite plainly but without the context that would explain it. And the truth is that he does deteriorate. Shakespeare pushes the boundaries of how human minds function in Hamlet. One can see how many thoughts can be behind a single deed through the concept of crazy. The Tragedy of Hamlet fundamentally explores the creation of the human mind, which is how it touches on the concept of madness.

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