TheBeast101
Answered

Discover the answers you need at Westonci.ca, where experts provide clear and concise information on various topics. Join our Q&A platform to get precise answers from experts in diverse fields and enhance your understanding. Discover in-depth answers to your questions from a wide network of professionals on our user-friendly Q&A platform.

Is 16% of 40the same as 40% of 16

Sagot :

yes! 

40% of 16 = 6.4

16% of 40 = 6.4

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to change 16% to a fraction:

[tex]=16/100=4/25[/tex]

We can multiply 4/25 by 40:

[tex]=(4/25)\cdot{40}=160/25=32/5[/tex]

We can do the same for 40% of 16:

[tex]=40/100=2/5[/tex]

We can multiply 2/5 by 16:

[tex]=(2/5)\cdot{16}=32/5[/tex]

Therefore 16% of 40 is equal to 40% of 16

We hope you found what you were looking for. Feel free to revisit us for more answers and updated information. Thank you for visiting. Our goal is to provide the most accurate answers for all your informational needs. Come back soon. We're glad you chose Westonci.ca. Revisit us for updated answers from our knowledgeable team.