TheBeast101
Answered

At Westonci.ca, we provide clear, reliable answers to all your questions. Join our vibrant community and get the solutions you need. Discover comprehensive answers to your questions from knowledgeable professionals on our user-friendly platform. Explore comprehensive solutions to your questions from knowledgeable professionals across various fields on our platform.

Is 16% of 40the same as 40% of 16

Sagot :

yes! 

40% of 16 = 6.4

16% of 40 = 6.4

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to change 16% to a fraction:

[tex]=16/100=4/25[/tex]

We can multiply 4/25 by 40:

[tex]=(4/25)\cdot{40}=160/25=32/5[/tex]

We can do the same for 40% of 16:

[tex]=40/100=2/5[/tex]

We can multiply 2/5 by 16:

[tex]=(2/5)\cdot{16}=32/5[/tex]

Therefore 16% of 40 is equal to 40% of 16

We appreciate your time. Please revisit us for more reliable answers to any questions you may have. Thank you for visiting. Our goal is to provide the most accurate answers for all your informational needs. Come back soon. Find reliable answers at Westonci.ca. Visit us again for the latest updates and expert advice.