TheBeast101
Answered

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Is 16% of 40the same as 40% of 16

Sagot :

yes! 

40% of 16 = 6.4

16% of 40 = 6.4

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to change 16% to a fraction:

[tex]=16/100=4/25[/tex]

We can multiply 4/25 by 40:

[tex]=(4/25)\cdot{40}=160/25=32/5[/tex]

We can do the same for 40% of 16:

[tex]=40/100=2/5[/tex]

We can multiply 2/5 by 16:

[tex]=(2/5)\cdot{16}=32/5[/tex]

Therefore 16% of 40 is equal to 40% of 16

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