reeneg51
Answered

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A woman who isn't colorblind but has an allele for color blindness reproduces with a man who has normal vision. What is the chance that they'll have a colorblind daughter.

Ans. 0%

Sagot :

dmergenthal
it depends on if the man has 2 alleles for normal vision, if he does then then there is zero percent chance, if he also has an allele for color blindness then its 25%.

Answer:

There is [tex]0[/tex]% chance that they'll have a colorblind daughter.

Explanation:

Let the allele representing the color blindness be "c". "c" is a recessive allele because this allele is there in woman but it is not expressed.

So the genotype for woman is XCXc

Genotype of Man is YCXC

The cross between the above two parents will produce following offspring -

XCXc * YCXC

XCYC, XCXC, XcYC, XcXC

Out of two daughters,  none of them is color blind

Thus,  there is [tex]0[/tex]% chance that they'll have a colorblind daughter.

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