Answered

Get the answers you need at Westonci.ca, where our expert community is dedicated to providing you with accurate information. Our platform provides a seamless experience for finding reliable answers from a network of experienced professionals. Get detailed and accurate answers to your questions from a dedicated community of experts on our Q&A platform.

In humans, having freckles is the result of a dominant gene, and not having freckles is a recessive trait. If a freckled man who is homozygous for this trait has a child with a woman who does not have freckles, which of the following best describes how their child would most likely appear?
A. Their child would not have freckles if the father passes on the recessive allele.
B. Their child would have freckles.
C. Their child would not have freckles.
D. Their child would have freckles since the mother is a carrier for freckles.
Can someone explain this for me ?

Sagot :

play86play
The answer is C. Draw a Punnett square.
Its b because if you cross FF(freckles) and ff (no freckles) using punnet square or any method you will get 100% Ff . Since its recesive Ff means having freckles so the answer is b their child would have freckles
Thanks for using our platform. We aim to provide accurate and up-to-date answers to all your queries. Come back soon. Thank you for choosing our platform. We're dedicated to providing the best answers for all your questions. Visit us again. Thank you for choosing Westonci.ca as your information source. We look forward to your next visit.