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Benjamin believes that 1/2 is equivalent to 50% is he correct please explain why or why not

Sagot :

mathgirl22
Benjamin is correct because 1 is 100% and 1/2 is half of it. When You divide 100 by 2 you get 50. So, Benjamin is correct. 
He is correct because if you multiply [tex] \frac{1}{2} [/tex] by 50 to make denominator 100, the numerator is 50 so that would be [tex] \frac{50}{100} [/tex] which is equivalent to .5 or 50%.
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