Historically, famines have generally been followed by periods of rising wages, because when a labor
force is diminished, workers are more valuable in accordance with the
law of supply and demand.
The Irish potato famine of the 1840s is an exception; it resulted in
the death or emigration of half
of
Ireland's population, but there was no significant rise in the average wages in Ireland
in the following
decade. Which one of the following, if true, would LEAST contribute
to an explanation of the
exception to the generalization?
Eviction policies of the landowners in Ireland were designed to force emigration of the elderly and infirm, who
could not work, and to retain a high percentage of able-bodied workers
The birth rate increased during the decade following the famine, and this compensated for much of the loss of
population that was due to the famine.
Advances in technology increased the efficiency of industry and agriculture, and so allowed maintenance of
economic output with less demand for labor.
Improved medical care reduced the mortality rate among able-bodied adults in the decade following famine to
below prefamine levels
England, which had political control of Ireland, legislated artificially low wages to provide English-owned
industry and agriculture in Ireland with cheap labor.