For a function where every x -value has only one y -value, would the inverse of the function be a function as well? Explain why or why not? Will this be true when two or more x -values have the same y -value? Explain why or why not?

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16-07-2024
Mathematics

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For a function where every x -value has only one y -value, would the inverse of the function be a function as well? Explain why or why not? Will this be true when two or more x -values have the same y -value? Explain why or why not?

Sagot :

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For a function where every x -value has only one y -value, would the inverse of the function be a function as well? Explain why or why not? Will this be true when two or more x -values have the same y -value? Explain why or why not?

Sagot :

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