Answered

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The allele that gives you dimples is dominant over the allele for no dimples. One partner in a couple has dimples and the other has no dimples. Would you expect their children to have dimples? Explain as fully as you can, using genetic diagrams to explain your answer.

Sagot :

astar9

Answer:

So one partner has genotype: Aa or AA while the other without dimples has: aa

There can be children with dimples only if the first partner with dimples has as genotype Aa.

Alleles are the variant form of a gene, which codes for more than one trait. It is present on the same locus of the chromosome as the gene.

Let us assume the allele dominant for dimples is DD, whereas the allele for recessive or no dimples trait is 'd.'

The dominant allele is expressed, whereas the recessive allele can only be expressed in the purebred conditions.

Let the gametes for the partner having dominant alleles for dimples be DD, while the partners not having dimples be dd.

The cross between the couple is given in the attachment below.

Thus, there is a hundred percent chance that the offspring can have dimples.

To know more about alleles, refer to the following link:

https://brainly.com/question/25970081

View image kasliwalalvi24
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